posted by Angeline .
When you're conjugating an -ere verb, such as docere, when do you put the macron on the past tense forms? I know in present tense, the macron is only used for you singular+plural and we. Are -ere verbs inconsistent like this, or is it consistent like the future tense? Thanks for your help.
If, by past tense, you mean the imperfect tense, active voice, here is how docçre is conjugated:
docebam (macron over the e)
docebas (macrons over the e and a)
docebat (macron over the e)
docebamus (macrons over the e and a)
docebatis (macrons over the e and a)
docebant (macron over the e)
If you have another tense and voice in mind, please repost.
That was it exactly. Thanks for answering my question.
You're very welcome.