posted by y912f .
In the Declaration of Independence what evidence is there that the colonists had already unsuccessfully voiced concerns to the King?
i found this phrase from it, could it be the answer?:
"He has refused for a long time, after such dissolutions, to cause others to be elected; whereby the Legislative powers, incapable of Annihilation, have returned to the People at large for their exercise; the State remaining in the mean time exposed to all the dangers of invasions from without, and convulsions within."
can someone pleease help me with this...
Here is a place to begin:
That sounds about right.
I hated studing the American documents of early colonists-important, and utterly boring to me.
Anyway, if i got anything from the lessons on the Declaration of Independence-it's that the king was being ignorant of the colonists, and took it a badly lost war over less equipped farmers to get him to listen.
yes that is the ansswer for sure. good job!
"He has abdicated government here, by declaring us out of his protection, and waging war agaisnt us."
but hey look at this its in my book:
"He has refused his Assent to Laws, the most wholesome and necessary for the public good."
The Declaration states that they had petitioned for redress and repeated petitions have been answered only by repeated injuries