Prior to 1763, the British government generally followed a policy of salutary neglect towards the American colonies because it:
a) wished to secure the loyalty of the colonies
b) lacked a well-organized imperial system
c) lacked the power to make laws for the colonies
d) did little trading with the colonies
e) rejected the idea of mercantilism
I think that the answer is a but I'm not sure so if anyone could help me that'd be great! Thanks! :)
a) is probably the best answer, the others are wrong. What has happening was through the navigation acts, the colonies were squeezed, they could buy finished goods from England, but not sell. So, they had no way to pay debts. The English then when the squeeze became apparent, ignored enforcing those laws which hurt the colonies (salutary neglect).
Thank you so much! :)
Answer is b
Wrong it's b
To determine the correct answer, let's break down the question and the options one by one:
The question is asking about the reason why the British government generally followed a policy of salutary neglect towards the American colonies before 1763. This means that the British government did not enforce strict control or interference over the colonies during this period.
Now, let's evaluate each option:
a) Wished to secure the loyalty of the colonies: This option suggests that the British government followed salutary neglect to win the support and allegiance of the colonies. This could be a valid reason, as a more lenient policy might have fostered goodwill and loyalty among the colonists.
b) Lacked a well-organized imperial system: This option suggests that the British government did not have a well-established system to control and administer its overseas colonies. While this might have been a contributing factor, it does not directly explain the policy of salutary neglect.
c) Lacked the power to make laws for the colonies: This option suggests that the British government did not have the authority to pass laws specifically for the American colonies. While this might have restricted their ability to exert control, it does not directly address the policy of salutary neglect.
d) Did little trading with the colonies: This option suggests that the British government had limited economic interaction with the colonies. While economic factors played a role in British colonial policies, this option does not directly explain salutary neglect.
e) Rejected the idea of mercantilism: This option suggests that the British government did not subscribe to the economic philosophy of mercantilism, which emphasized strict control and regulation of trade. While this might have influenced their policy towards the colonies, it does not directly address salutary neglect.
Based on this analysis, option a) "wished to secure the loyalty of the colonies" seems to be the most plausible answer. The policy of salutary neglect allowed the colonies more freedom and, in turn, possibly enhanced their loyalty to the British government.
Therefore, the most likely correct answer is a) wished to secure the loyalty of the colonies.