posted by sarah
true or false-
if the sum from n=1 to infinity of a(n) converges and an is greater than 0, then the sum from n=1 to infinity of the sin (a of n) converges. i said this was true because the sin where a is greater than 0 will always be greater than one and will converge
Huh? the sin of anything is between -1 and +1
I think it is true because the absolute value of it converges, even if you forget about the negative contributions of the sin in the fourth and third quadrants.