<11{1[4(23)23]}> People have claimed that Jamie’s paintings have given them the blues. Clearly this cannot be entirely correct, since many of Jamie’s paintings contain no blue at all.
The argument above is flawed because the author:
The author is conflating two unrelated concepts, an emotional state with a physical/optical color. There is no demonstrable correlation between the two.
Sorry don't know this answer please try again next time! :) LOL!
The argument above is flawed because the author is making a generalization based on the opinions of "people" without providing any evidence or support for their claims. Additionally, the author assumes that the absence of the color blue in Jamie's paintings disproves the claim that they give people the blues. However, there could be other elements in Jamie's paintings that evoke feelings of sadness or melancholy, even without the presence of the color blue. Therefore, the author's conclusion that the claim cannot be entirely correct lacks sufficient reasoning and logical support.
The argument above is flawed because the author makes an incorrect assumption based on a generalization. They claim that since many of Jamie's paintings contain no blue at all, it cannot be entirely correct that Jamie's paintings have given people the blues. However, this assumption ignores the possibility that Jamie's paintings can evoke a feeling or emotion of "the blues" even without containing the color blue.
To address this flaw, the author should consider that the phrase "giving someone the blues" is often used figuratively to describe a feeling of sadness or melancholy, rather than a literal reference to the color blue. By recognizing this, the author can better evaluate whether or not Jamie's paintings can indeed evoke such emotions, regardless of the absence of the color blue in them.