Posted by **Dawn** on Wednesday, September 3, 2014 at 9:36pm.

A student argues that a p% increase in salary followed by a q% decrease is equivalent to a q% decrease followed by a p% increase because of the commutative property of multiplication. How do you respond?

- MATH1112 -
**Steve**, Thursday, September 4, 2014 at 12:21am
In the first case, we have

(1+p)(1-q)

In the second case, we have

(1-q)(1+p)

Looks the same to me, and for the stated reason.

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