Posted by McKenna Louise on Friday, February 28, 2014 at 9:41pm.
Prove the following:
1/(tanØ - secØ ) + 1/(tanØ + secØ) = -2tanØ
(1 - sinØ)/(1 + sinØ) = sec^2Ø - 2secØtanØ + tan^2Ø
- Trig - Reiny, Friday, February 28, 2014 at 10:06pm
That's a better job of typing it.
I did the first of these in your previous post..
LS = (1-sinØ)/(1+ sinØ)
= (1-sinØ)/(1+ sinØ) * (1-sinØ)/(1- sinØ)
= (1 - 2sinØ + sin^2 Ø)/(1 - sin^2 Ø)
= (1 - 2sinØ + sin^2 Ø)/cos^2 Ø
= 1/cos^2 Ø - 2sinØ/cos^2 Ø + sin^2 Ø/cos^2Ø
= sec^2 Ø - 2(sinØ/cosØ)*(1/cosØ) + tan^2 Ø
= sec^2 Ø - 2tanØ secØ + tan^2 Ø
- Trig - Steve, Saturday, March 1, 2014 at 6:09am
or, if you divide top and bottom by cosØ you have
now multiply top and bottom by (secØ-tanØ) and you have
(secØ-tanØ)^2 / (sec^2Ø-tan^2Ø)
= sec^2Ø - 2secØtanØ + tan^2Ø
- Trig - McKenna Louise, Saturday, March 1, 2014 at 8:46am
Thanks to the both of you :)
- Trig - Anonymous, Friday, April 1, 2016 at 11:43am
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