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January 27, 2015

January 27, 2015

Posted by **christina** on Monday, February 10, 2014 at 10:39pm.

tinypic .cm /r / nfr48k/ 8

The correct answer is .1443 but I want to know how they got that. Thanks.

- Physics -
**Steve**, Tuesday, February 11, 2014 at 6:06amThe equivalent resistance from R2 and R3 is

1/R = 1/38 + 1/18

R = 12.214

So, we now have a total R of 16+12.214 = 28.214 ohms

That means our current through R1 and the R2R3 network is 6/28.214 = .212 amps

Now, divide that current between R2 and R3 and

Ix = .212(38/56) = .144

or so. Check my math and adjust sig figs.

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