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March 31, 2015

March 31, 2015

Posted by **Cambridge** on Thursday, January 2, 2014 at 11:24am.

After letting w = a+bi and z = c + di and doing some plugging in etc. I got that

ac-bd <= b^2 + sqrt (a^2+b^2)(c^2+d^2) + d^2

But is my proof complete? I know logically sqrt (a^2+b^2)(c^2+d^2) is a bit less than ac+ad+bc+bd but now what?

- Complex numbers -
**Steve**, Thursday, January 2, 2014 at 11:59amThere are lots of proofs of the triangle inequality. One such can be found here:

https://www.math.ucdavis.edu/~forehand/67_summer2012_files/triangle%20inequality.pdf

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