Posted by Anonymous on .
If we know that the definite integral from 6 to 3 of f(x) equals 6, the definite integral from 6 to 5 equals 2 and the definite integral from 4 to 3 equals 4 then:
What is the definite integral from 5 to 4? I know that this is zero.
But then what can we say about the definite integral from 4 to 5 of not just f(x) but 6f(x)2?
i'm lost! I thought it would just be zero... Thank you!

Calc 
Anonymous,
Nevermind guys I got It!!!