Is it possible for someone to become deaf and mute at the age of ten while they were perfect before?

If so, then what could be a reason that would lead them to lose both hearing and talking?

Thank you in advance! All help is greatly appreciated :)

Assuming that mute only indicates inability to use speech and deaf only means inability to understand speech, traumatic brain damage could be a possibility, specifically Broca's and Wernicke's areas on the dominant side of the brain.

The child would still be able to hear sounds (thunder, door slam, etc.) and voice nonlanguage utterances (laughing, moaning, etc.).