What did the Colonial boycotts of British goods before the Revolutionary War were effective measures.
I wanted to say It lowered the prices of imported goods but I had second thoughts and thought It reduced the profits of British merchants.. Please help me
It certainly did reduce the profits of the British merchants.
To determine the effectiveness of the colonial boycotts of British goods before the Revolutionary War, we can consider the impact they had on both the prices of imported goods and the profits of British merchants.
First, let's address the effect on imported goods. The colonial boycotts aimed to decrease the demand for British goods by refusing to buy or import them. This reduction in demand indeed had an impact on prices. With less demand, the British merchants had to find alternative markets or reduce prices to entice colonial consumers. As a result, it is plausible to say that the boycotts contributed to a decrease in the prices of imported British goods in the colonies.
Secondly, let's consider the effect on British merchants' profits. As the boycotts decreased demand for their goods, British merchants suffered economically. The boycotts disrupted the supply chain and led to a decline in their sales and profits. This reduction in profits could have been one of the intended goals of the boycotts, as colonial protesters sought to financially pressure the British government and merchants into capitulating to their demands.
In summary, both your initial thought and the alternative idea you had are valid. The colonial boycotts of British goods before the Revolutionary War likely had a dual effect. They likely contributed to reducing the prices of imported goods and also had a negative impact on the profits of British merchants, achieving the intended economic pressure on the British government.