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October 31, 2014

October 31, 2014

Posted by **nik** on Wednesday, April 10, 2013 at 12:42pm.

- trig -
**Steve**, Wednesday, April 10, 2013 at 12:47pmsince sin^2 + cos^2 = 1,

sin^2 = 1 - cos^2 = 1-(1/a^2)

so sin = √(1 - 1/a^2) = 1/a √(a^2-1)

to see this, draw your triangle and label the adjacent leg=1 and the hypotenuse=a. Then the other leg is √(a^2-1) and the sin is just √(a^2-1)/a.

Since sin > 0 in QII, that's the value; no - sign needed. in fact, if you draw the angle in QII, you will see that's so, since sin=y/r and y>0.

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