math
posted by Hasane .
Prove:
3/(log_2 (a))  2/(log_4 (a)) = 1/(log_(1/2)(a))

3/(log_2 (a))  2/(log_4 (a)) = 1/(log_(1/2)(a))
since 4 = 2^2, log_4(a) = 1/2 log_2(a)
since 1/2 = 2^1, log_(1/2)(a) = log_2(a)
so, if we let x = log_2(a), we have
3/x  2/(x/2) = 1/(x)
3/x  4/x = 1/x
(43)/x = 1/x
1/x = 1/x
???
Is there a typo somewhere ? 
i.imgur[dot]com/hE0sWBt[dot]gif

Make sure its just like that, it has to be solvable o.o

er "proveable"