Sunday

March 29, 2015

March 29, 2015

Posted by **Travis** on Sunday, February 10, 2013 at 3:28pm.

The sum from n=2 to infinity of 1/(n(ln(n))^p).

I tried the integral test using u-substitution, and I know the answer is p>1, but I'm not quite sure how to get there. Thanks for the help.

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