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March 3, 2015

March 3, 2015

Posted by **maam** on Wednesday, February 6, 2013 at 6:35am.

- a -
**Reiny**, Wednesday, February 6, 2013 at 11:23amif x --> π/2 , then cosπ/2 ---> 0

anything^0 = 1

so lim (π - 2x)^cosx , as x--->π/2

= 1

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**Steve**, Wednesday, February 6, 2013 at 12:34pmHowever, pi-2x->0 as well, and 0^0 is undefined

Haven't figured out yet the proof. L'Hospital's Rule seems not to help much, taking logs.

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