Posted by maam on Wednesday, February 6, 2013 at 6:35am.
.
if x --> π/2 , then cosπ/2 ---> 0
anything^0 = 1
so lim (π - 2x)^cosx , as x--->π/2
= 1
However, pi-2x->0 as well, and 0^0 is undefined
Haven't figured out yet the proof. L'Hospital's Rule seems not to help much, taking logs.
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