Homework Help: Math

Posted by Sam on Friday, January 18, 2013 at 12:41pm.

Suppose f is a function with range (-∞,∞) and g is a function with domain (0, ∞). Is it possible that g and f are inverse functions? Explain.

Math - Steve, Friday, January 18, 2013 at 1:00pm
I'd say no. The range of a function is the domain of its inverse.

g(f) = x

the domain of g is the range of f.

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