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January 31, 2015

January 31, 2015

Posted by **Sam** on Friday, January 18, 2013 at 12:41pm.

- Math -
**Steve**, Friday, January 18, 2013 at 1:00pmI'd say no. The range of a function is the domain of its inverse.

g(f) = x

the domain of g is the range of f.

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