Sunday

April 20, 2014

April 20, 2014

Posted by **Zisis** on Wednesday, January 16, 2013 at 3:02pm.

a) Show that there is a x1 that belongs to (0,1) such that f'(x1)=1.

b) Show that there is a x2 that belongs to (1,2) such that f'(x2)=0.

c) Show that there is a x3 that belongs to (0,2) such that f'(x3)=2/3.

- math -
**Steve**, Wednesday, January 16, 2013 at 5:49pma) (f(1)-f(0))/(1-0) = 1

MVT says x1 exists

b) f(1)=f(2), so MVT or Rolle's Theorem says x2 exists

c) since differentiable, the IVT applies to the derivative, which must assume all values between 0 and 1 (which we know it attains from the two parts above).

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