Posted by
**sanaz** on
.

Suppose X_n is a sequence of independent Bernoulli random variables and p(X_n=1)=p_n. If Y=∑_(n=1)^∞▒X_n is convergent with probability 1 ,is E(Y) convergent?

Wednesday

March 29, 2017
Posted by
**sanaz** on
.

Suppose X_n is a sequence of independent Bernoulli random variables and p(X_n=1)=p_n. If Y=∑_(n=1)^∞▒X_n is convergent with probability 1 ,is E(Y) convergent?

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