# mathematical statistics

posted by
**sanaz** on
.

Suppose X_n is a sequence of independent Bernoulli random variables and p(X_n=1)=p_n. If Y=∑_(n=1)^∞▒X_n is convergent with probability 1 ,is E(Y) convergent?

posted by
**sanaz** on
.

Suppose X_n is a sequence of independent Bernoulli random variables and p(X_n=1)=p_n. If Y=∑_(n=1)^∞▒X_n is convergent with probability 1 ,is E(Y) convergent?