Posted by **sanaz** on Thursday, January 10, 2013 at 5:29am.

Suppose a_n∈ [0,1] and X_n is a sequence of i.i.d random variables with p.d.f : p(X_n=1)= p(X_n= -1)=0.5 . ∑_(n=1)^∞▒a_n X_n is convergent with probability 1, is ∑_(n=1)^∞▒a_n^2 convergent?

## Answer this Question

## Related Questions

- mathematical statistics - Suppose X_n is a sequence of independent Bernoulli ...
- Poofs - Let {X_n} be a sequence of real numbers that is bounded above by M and ...
- Math - Let p>q>0 with p+q = 1 and a = q/p < 1. Let X_n denote the ...
- Math - Given an iterated map, ie. x_n+1 = 3* x_n / (x_n +1), how do we find all ...
- Calculus - If a_n does not equal zero for any n>=1 and ∑a_n converges ...
- Calculus - Find a series ∑a_n for which ∑(a_n)^2 converges but &#...
- Proof - Let {x_n} and {y_n} be real valued sequences suppose x_n->0 and {y_n...
- Sequences - If {x_n} is not bounded above, does x_n -> infinity? prove there ...
- Math Proof - Let {X_n} be a sequence of real numbers that is bounded above by M ...
- Calculus - If a_n>0 and a_(n+1) <= a_n, does the alternating series ∑...

More Related Questions