Posted by **lindsay** on Tuesday, December 11, 2012 at 7:33pm.

If f(x)=2x+1/x-3 and g(x)=1-x/2

Show that f(g)(x)=g(f)(x)

- math -
**Reiny**, Tuesday, December 11, 2012 at 8:38pm
Before I solve this, clarify if you mean it the way you typed it, or

if you meant:

f(x) = (2x+1)/(x-3) or f(x) = 2x + 1/(x-3) or ...

and

g(x) = (1-x)/2

- math -
**lindsay**, Wednesday, December 12, 2012 at 11:15am
Hi Reiny,

I did not get any parentheses with the question. I got it the way I typed it.

Thanks.

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