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posted by lindsay on Tuesday, December 11, 2012 at 7:33pm.

If f(x)=2x+1/x-3 and g(x)=1-x/2 Show that f(g)(x)=g(f)(x)

Before I solve this, clarify if you mean it the way you typed it, or if you meant: f(x) = (2x+1)/(x-3) or f(x) = 2x + 1/(x-3) or ... and g(x) = (1-x)/2

Hi Reiny, I did not get any parentheses with the question. I got it the way I typed it. Thanks.

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