Posted by **lindsay** on Tuesday, December 11, 2012 at 7:33pm.

If f(x)=2x+1/x-3 and g(x)=1-x/2

Show that f(g)(x)=g(f)(x)

- math -
**Reiny**, Tuesday, December 11, 2012 at 8:38pm
Before I solve this, clarify if you mean it the way you typed it, or

if you meant:

f(x) = (2x+1)/(x-3) or f(x) = 2x + 1/(x-3) or ...

and

g(x) = (1-x)/2

- math -
**lindsay**, Wednesday, December 12, 2012 at 11:15am
Hi Reiny,

I did not get any parentheses with the question. I got it the way I typed it.

Thanks.

## Answer This Question

## Related Questions

- math - if a & b are perpendicular vectors, show that a)(a+2b).(a-b)=|a|^2-2|b|^2...
- math - Can someone please show us how to show 1500 x 2.1? I can not for the life...
- math - a local television station sends out questionnaires to determine if ...
- Math - Could you show me how to work through this problem? Show me steps Solve ...
- Math - please show me how to do this... A statement Sn about the positive ...
- Mathematics - A local television station sent out questionnaires to determine ...
- Math - do this values in the table represent a linear function? If so what is ...
- Math - Dog show competitors Dog Breed. Number of Dogs Poodle. 35 German ...
- algebra - Could you show me how to do these math systems and show your work so i...
- math - please help with daughters homework show 25 broken key is 5 show in 3 ...

More Related Questions