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October 1, 2014

October 1, 2014

Posted by **kenny** on Thursday, November 22, 2012 at 11:52pm.

Is the second equation an inverse of the first equation or is it no a function?

- Pre-Cal -
**Steve**, Friday, November 23, 2012 at 5:19amfirst off, equations have no inverses. They are just equations.

if y = f(x) and x = f(y), then

f^-1(y) = x = f(y)

so f is its own inverse.

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