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October 1, 2014

October 1, 2014

Posted by **Andrew** on Tuesday, November 20, 2012 at 8:43pm.

I know the answer but I do not know how to get to that. Answer is 0.268 should I reduce fraction?

- Statistics -
**ActuaryDad**, Tuesday, November 20, 2012 at 9:31pmTo determine probability of binomial distribution for success (x=2) use the following ...

[n choose x] * p ^x * (1-p) ^ (n-x) where

for the first part ...

[n choose x] =

n! divided by [x! * (n-x!)]

so we have 20! / (2! * 18!)

= 20 * 19 / 2 = 190

the second part we have

p ^ x = (1/8) ^ 2 = 1/64 = 0.015625

the third part we have

(1-p) ^ (n-x) = (7/8) ^ 18 = 0.090395

and finally 190 * 0.015625 * 0.090395 =

0.26836

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