Posted by Heather on Tuesday, November 13, 2012 at 6:01pm.
if x = pi*tan(z)
pi^2 + x^2 = pi^2 + pi^2 tan^2(z) = pi^2 sec^2(z)
dx = pi*sec^2(z)
1/(pi^3 sec^3(z)) * pi*sec^2(z) dz
= 1/pi^2 cos(z) dz
the integral is thus 1/pi^2 sin(z)
x/pi * tan(z), so
sin(z) = x/sqrt(pi^2 + x^2)
the integral is thus x/[pi^2 sqrt(pi^2 + x^2)]
from 0 to infinity is thus 1/pi^2
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