Posted by ladybug on Wednesday, October 31, 2012 at 9:07pm.
no , from your lines
-2x/x^2+1=0
-2/x+1=0
at the start you had (x^2 +1) in brackets as I just did
so when you divide top and bottom by x, every term has to be divided by x
and you would get
-2/(x + 1/x) = 0
but I would not do that
If a fraction = 0 , then the zero can only come from the numerator, and the denominator could never be zero, or else we would be dividing by zero
so in
-2x/(x^2+1) = 0
-2x = 0
x = 0
so (0,0) is both an x and a y intercept.
ok thanks
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