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April 16, 2014

April 16, 2014

Posted by **Joe** on Tuesday, October 23, 2012 at 10:03pm.

- Statistics -
**MathGuru**, Thursday, October 25, 2012 at 6:40pmHere's one way to do this problem:

n = 10

p = .05

q = 1 - p = 1 - .05 = .95

You will need to find P(0). You can then take 1 - P(0) for your probability, which is easier than finding P(1) through P(10).

You can use a binomial probability table, or calculate by hand using the following formula:

P(x) = (nCx)(p^x)[q^(n-x)]

I'll let you take it from here.

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