Posted by Joe on Tuesday, October 23, 2012 at 10:03pm.
Here's one way to do this problem:
n = 10
p = .05
q = 1 - p = 1 - .05 = .95
You will need to find P(0). You can then take 1 - P(0) for your probability, which is easier than finding P(1) through P(10).
You can use a binomial probability table, or calculate by hand using the following formula:
P(x) = (nCx)(p^x)[q^(n-x)]
I'll let you take it from here.
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