Tuesday

July 22, 2014

July 22, 2014

Posted by **Huey** on Tuesday, August 28, 2012 at 11:03pm.

y=e^(1x)+4

y=0

x=0

x=0.3

about the x-axis.

I attempted this problem numerous time and kept on getting 5.501779941pi, using the formale integral of pi(r^2) bounded by 0.3 and 0.

- Calculus -
**Reiny**, Tuesday, August 28, 2012 at 11:23pmis your function

y = e^x + 4

or

y = e^(x+4) ????

I will assume the first

V = π∫(e^x + 4)^2 dx from 0 to .3

= π∫(e^(2x) + 8e^x + 16) dx

= π[(1/2)e^(2x) + 8e^x + 16x] from 0 to .3

= π( (1/2)e^.6 + 8e^.3 + 16(.3) - ((1/2)e^0 + 8e^0 + 0) )

= π(16.5099 - 8.5) = 25.1639

you better check my arithmetic, it has been failing me lately

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