Posted by hiii on Thursday, June 28, 2012 at 12:00pm.
<rant> AARGH! Who are these people that don't understand that π is PI, not PIE? </rant>
y = cot^2(x)
y' = 2cot(x)(-csc^2(x)) = -2cot(x)csc^2(x)
at x=π/4, the slope is -2(1)(2) = -4
the line through (π/4,1) with slope -4 is
(y-1) = -4(x-π/4)
massage that equation into the form you most like.
how did u get -2(1)(2)? did u just plug the PI/4 into the formula?
yeah, that's the way one computes the value of f(x) -- plug in the value of x.
http://wordplay.blogs.nytimes.com/2011/03/14/numberplay-pi-in-the-sky/
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