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January 28, 2015

January 28, 2015

Posted by **hiii** on Thursday, June 28, 2012 at 12:00pm.

I am not sure how to do this and if you can help, that would be awesome. It's the cot that's really tripping me up :/

- calculus -
**Steve**, Thursday, June 28, 2012 at 12:28pm<rant> AARGH! Who are these people that don't understand that π is PI, not PIE? </rant>

y = cot^2(x)

y' = 2cot(x)(-csc^2(x)) = -2cot(x)csc^2(x)

at x=π/4, the slope is -2(1)(2) = -4

the line through (π/4,1) with slope -4 is

(y-1) = -4(x-π/4)

massage that equation into the form you most like.

- calculus -
**hiii**, Thursday, June 28, 2012 at 12:52pmhow did u get -2(1)(2)? did u just plug the PI/4 into the formula?

- calculus -
**Steve**, Thursday, June 28, 2012 at 1:19pmyeah, that's the way one computes the value of f(x) -- plug in the value of x.

- calculus -
**Count Iblis**, Thursday, June 28, 2012 at 1:28pmhttp://wordplay.blogs.nytimes.com/2011/03/14/numberplay-pi-in-the-sky/

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