Posted by **alsa** on Saturday, June 16, 2012 at 8:56pm.

Is Integral of f(x) w.r.t.x from 0 to a;equal to Integral of f(x-a) w.r.t.x from 0 to a?

- Integral calculus -
**MathMate**, Sunday, June 17, 2012 at 6:25pm
To show the results, we assume

F(x)=∫f(x)dx

then

∫f(x)dx from 0 to a is F(a)-F(0)

and

∫f(x-a)dx from 0 to a is F(0)-F(0-a)

=F(0)-F(-a)

=-F(-a)+F(0)

For the two to be equal, we require:

F(a)-F(0) = -F(-a) + F(0)

or

F(a)-F(-a) = 2F(0)

Which is not generally true. So the answer is no. A counter example is when f(x)=sin(x).

However, equality can be satisfied if F(x) is an odd function where F(0)=0 (such as sin(x)). This means that equality will hold if f(x)=±k*cos(x).

## Answer This Question

## Related Questions

- calc asap! - can you help me get started on this integral by parts? 4 S sqrt(t) ...
- Calculus - Find the volume of the solid whose base is the region in the xy-plane...
- Calculus II/III - A. Find the integral of the following function. Integral of (x...
- Integral calculus - You have not proved to me that the Integral of lnsinx w.r.t....
- Math/Calculus - How would I solve the following integral with the substitution ...
- Calculus II - Integrate using integration by parts (integral) (5-x) e^3x u = 5-x...
- calculus (please with steps and explanations) - consider the function f that is ...
- calc - how do you start this problem: integral of xe^(-2x) There are two ways: 1...
- Calculus (urgent help) - consider the function f that is continuous on the ...
- Calculus - In the interval (0 is less than or equal to x which is less than or ...

More Related Questions