Posted by **ciara** on Saturday, May 19, 2012 at 5:48pm.

Why did king john of England sign the Magna Carta in 1215?

A.The church forced him to sign it in order to set up the Estates General

B.His heirs insisted he sign it in order to establish a line of succession

C.The Crusades were bankrupting the country.

D.His barons forced him sign it because he was abusing his power.

My answer is ... A?

## Answer This Question

## Related Questions

- History: Check My Answers PLEASE - Which are accurate descriptions of how the ...
- English - Can you please check these sentences on history? Thank you, Writeacher...
- World History (Ms. Sue) - I've only written the first half of this paper, but I ...
- Math - The solution set of radical(x - 1) (is greater than sign) 5 is the set of...
- Math (Algebra) - Solve using the multiplication principle -7x <_ 35 the sign ...
- Geometry - How many lines of symmetry on the four operating symbols? Addition ...
- math - john ordered a new sign for her store. The sign has 4 sides . It also has...
- math - how do you rewrite the problem so the divisor is a whole number 48.4 (...
- History - 1. What powers did Parliament have in the Bill of Rights? 2. Why was ...
- Math - What is the domain of the function below? f(x) = (x + 4)^2 - 4 A. (-...

More Related Questions