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Posted by on Thursday, May 10, 2012 at 8:08pm.

How is it possible for an object to obtain a larger impulse from a smaller force than from a larger force?

i have no clue how this can happen seems impossible ..

  • physics.... - , Saturday, May 12, 2012 at 12:00am

    impulse is Newtons* seconds

    say you have the forces 1N and 2N. if you apply the 1N to an object for say 10 seconds then the impulse is 10N*s. when you apply the 2N force, it would take 5 seconds to match the same impulse as the 1N.

    aka: if the smaller force is applied longer then it will have a greater impulse

  • physics.... - , Sunday, May 13, 2012 at 12:56pm

    thank you ..... :-)

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