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April 1, 2015

April 1, 2015

Posted by **Julie** on Monday, May 7, 2012 at 1:21pm.

- math -
**Yc2012**, Monday, May 7, 2012 at 1:43pmThe common notion is that, since n!/n = (n-1)!, we can substitute 1 in for n and we can see that 0! is 1. The problem with this is that, if 0! is not assumed to be 1 (which is an assumption mathematicians do make), this rule will only hold for values of n that are equal to or greater than 2. To see why, let's look at the proof that n!/n = (n-1)!:

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