Posted by Julie on Monday, May 7, 2012 at 1:21pm.
The common notion is that, since n!/n = (n-1)!, we can substitute 1 in for n and we can see that 0! is 1. The problem with this is that, if 0! is not assumed to be 1 (which is an assumption mathematicians do make), this rule will only hold for values of n that are equal to or greater than 2. To see why, let's look at the proof that n!/n = (n-1)!:
Related Questions
Economics - Equilibrium is defined as the price at which the quantity demanded ...
Physical Science - There are two more terms I need: "displacement" and...
crt - To introduce an unusual or unfamiliar word, to coin new words, or to ...
math - the price p and the quantity x sold of a certain product obey the demand ...
Biology Help!! - Estimates of the quantity of water required in the production ...
Biology Help!! - Estimates of the quantity of water required in the production ...
chemistry - By international agreement, the nautical mile is now defined as ...
Economics - Suppose planting flowering shrubs creates a positive externality ...
science - if we say that one quantity is proportional to another quantity does ...
math - The function f(x)is defined as f(x)={-2x+3: if -2 less than or equal to &...
For Further Reading
