Posted by **Julie ** on Monday, May 7, 2012 at 1:21pm.

The quantity 0! is defined equal to 1. Tell why this definition is reasonable.

- math -
**Yc2012**, Monday, May 7, 2012 at 1:43pm
The common notion is that, since n!/n = (n-1)!, we can substitute 1 in for n and we can see that 0! is 1. The problem with this is that, if 0! is not assumed to be 1 (which is an assumption mathematicians do make), this rule will only hold for values of n that are equal to or greater than 2. To see why, let's look at the proof that n!/n = (n-1)!:

## Answer this Question

## Related Questions

- crt - To introduce an unusual or unfamiliar word, to coin new words, or to ...
- Physical Science - There are two more terms I need: "displacement" and "derived ...
- Economics - Equilibrium is defined as the price at which the quantity demanded ...
- Algebra - As long as x is not zero, x0 is defined to be equal to . Using this ...
- math - the price p and the quantity x sold of a certain product obey the demand ...
- chemistry - By international agreement, the nautical mile is now defined as ...
- Biology Help!! - Estimates of the quantity of water required in the production ...
- Biology Help!! - Estimates of the quantity of water required in the production ...
- Chem - A Kilogram was originally defined as the mass of ___________. The ...
- Physics - Assume a quantity in physics was defined as (x2a3/v2) (acceleration ...

More Related Questions