Posted by **Mooch** on Thursday, March 15, 2012 at 11:35am.

Suppose f(x) = sin(pi cos(x)). On any interval where the inverse function y = f^-1(x) exists, the derivative of f^-1(x) with respect to x is:

I've come as far as y = arccos ((arcsin(x))/pi), but I am not certain this is right.

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