Saturday

March 28, 2015

March 28, 2015

Posted by **k** on Tuesday, February 21, 2012 at 11:32pm.

If g(x)= f inverse of x

and g(-4)= 1,

what is g'(-4)?

I know that f inverse is the same as

1/f'(x) but I'm not sure where to go from there.

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