Posted by W on Thursday, January 19, 2012 at 10:56pm.
How do I find the limit of (1+sin(pi times x))^(1/x) as x approaches 0? I tried using wolframalpha, but am unable to understand their steps. My thinking is that you set y=the limit and use L'hopital's rule a couple times. The answer I got was y=e^0>y=1, but the answer isn't right.
Thanks a ton in advance!

Calculus  Steve, Friday, January 20, 2012 at 5:23am
The steps on wolframalpha looked pretty clear to me. There was a lot of formal shifting of limit of product as product of limits, etc, but they basically used
lim sinx/x = 1 as x>0
lim sin(pi*x) / (pi*x)/pi = pi
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