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April 1, 2015

April 1, 2015

Posted by **Allessandra** on Saturday, December 17, 2011 at 12:52am.

Thanks!

- Maths -
**drwls**, Saturday, December 17, 2011 at 2:37amWell, the derivative is 3 sin^2x cosx. You get that using the "chain rule"

That means the derivative of (sin^3x)/3 is sin^2x cosx

So the indefinite integral of sin^2x cosx is sin^3x/3

For the definite integral, subtract sin^3(pi/2)/3 from sin^3(0)/3

The answer is -1/3, assuming the integral goes backwards from pi/2 to zero, as you seem to imply.

If the integration is in the forward direction, the answer is 1/3.

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