Posted by Anonymous on Friday, December 9, 2011 at 1:00pm.
"him" is never a subject; with that pronoun, "he" is the subject form and "him" is the object form.
http://grammar.ccc.commnet.edu/grammar/phrases.htm#infinitive
for infinitive phrases
http://grammar.ccc.commnet.edu/grammar/diagrams2/diagrams_frames.htm
for diagramming
http://www.eslcafe.com/grammar/verbs_other_verbs01.html
verbs plus infinitives (your first sentence)
http://www.eslcafe.com/grammar/verbs_other_verbs03.html
verbs plus other verbs (your second sentence)
Hmmm. A bit more research turned up
englishplus dot com where it said:
Keep in mind that when an infinitive follows a verb, sometimes the word to is dropped from the infinitive.
A personal pronoun is in the objective case when it is a subject of the infinitive.
It even covered the 2nd case, where the "to" is dropped.
If what you're looking for is a pat on the back, go ahead and write up what you want.
If you want my opinion (backed up by over 50 years of studying and teaching English and Latin), I tell you that infinitives do not have subjects -- and "him" is NEVER a subject.
Do as you wish ...
No offense, but I am surprised. The sentence is obviously common English usage, and if "him" is in the objective case, and is not the subject of the infinitive phrase, what is it?
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