Posted by Anonymous on Friday, December 9, 2011 at 1:00pm.
Consider the two sentences:
His mother wanted him to study more.
She made him study more.
In the first, we have an infinitive phrase acting as a direct object, with "him" as the subject of the infinitive.
How about the second sentence? Is that also an infinitive phrase, with an implied "to"? Or is that some other construct?
I'm thinking of how to diagram it.
- English - Infinitive phrases - Writeacher, Friday, December 9, 2011 at 3:05pm
"him" is never a subject; with that pronoun, "he" is the subject form and "him" is the object form.
for infinitive phrases
verbs plus infinitives (your first sentence)
verbs plus other verbs (your second sentence)
- English - Infinitive phrases - Anonymous, Friday, December 9, 2011 at 3:15pm
Hmmm. A bit more research turned up
englishplus dot com where it said:
Keep in mind that when an infinitive follows a verb, sometimes the word to is dropped from the infinitive.
A personal pronoun is in the objective case when it is a subject of the infinitive.
It even covered the 2nd case, where the "to" is dropped.
- English - Infinitive phrases - Writeacher, Friday, December 9, 2011 at 3:49pm
If what you're looking for is a pat on the back, go ahead and write up what you want.
If you want my opinion (backed up by over 50 years of studying and teaching English and Latin), I tell you that infinitives do not have subjects -- and "him" is NEVER a subject.
Do as you wish ...
- English - Infinitive phrases - Anonymous, Friday, December 9, 2011 at 5:39pm
No offense, but I am surprised. The sentence is obviously common English usage, and if "him" is in the objective case, and is not the subject of the infinitive phrase, what is it?
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