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March 6, 2015

March 6, 2015

Posted by **Joe** on Sunday, November 13, 2011 at 5:49pm.

Use Rolle's Theorem to show that f(x) has exactly one root.

- Calculus -
**Damon**, Sunday, November 13, 2011 at 5:58pmf' = 15 x^4 + 15 x^2 + 15

= 15 (x^4+x^2+1)

where is that slope = 0?

x^2 = [ -1 +/- sqrt(1-4)]/ 2

x^2 = -1/2 +/- (1/2) sqrt (-3)

complex roots only, it never has zero slope so it can only cross the axis once by Rolle's theorem. Once it crosses the axis, it can never reverse and come back.

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