Monday

July 28, 2014

July 28, 2014

Posted by **Christian** on Monday, September 12, 2011 at 8:39pm.

f(x) = 3x, then f^-1 (x) = 1/3x

A) This makes sense because the inverse would divide by 3 to "undo" the multiplication by 3 in f(x).

B) This does not make sense because although we would divide by 3 to "undo" the multiplication by 3 in f(x), the x would appear in the numerator not the denominator.

- Math (Ms. Sue Please Help) -
**bobpursley**, Monday, September 12, 2011 at 8:44pmYou have to be careful with the term inverse funtion.That is not the same as reciprocal.

if f(x)=3x=y

then the inverse can be found this way:

y=3x

x=3y

y=x/3 or f^-1(x)=x/3

check: inverse(function)must equal x

so f^-1 (f)= 3(x/3)=x so in fact it is the inverse.

So false. Go with B. When dealing with functions, the term "inverse" seldom means reciprocal.

- math -
**Christian**, Monday, September 12, 2011 at 8:44pmPlease help HM

- Math -
**Christian**, Monday, September 12, 2011 at 8:50pmare u sure about this

- Math (Ms. Sue Please Help) -
**Ms. Sue**, Monday, September 12, 2011 at 8:53pmChristian -- Bobpursley is a math/physics/teacher. HM is probably a high school student.

- Math (Ms. Sue Please Help) -
**bobpursley**, Monday, September 12, 2011 at 8:54pmYes, Christian. But dont trust me. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ec5YYVxyq44 That is the same message.

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