Post a New Question

Math (Ms. Sue Please Help)

posted by on .

Determine whether the following statement makes sense or does not make sense, and explain your reasoning (modified from true/false format of text): If

f(x) = 3x, then f^-1 (x) = 1/3x

A) This makes sense because the inverse would divide by 3 to "undo" the multiplication by 3 in f(x).

B) This does not make sense because although we would divide by 3 to "undo" the multiplication by 3 in f(x), the x would appear in the numerator not the denominator.

  • Math (Ms. Sue Please Help) - ,

    You have to be careful with the term inverse funtion.That is not the same as reciprocal.

    if f(x)=3x=y
    then the inverse can be found this way:
    y=x/3 or f^-1(x)=x/3

    check: inverse(function)must equal x

    so f^-1 (f)= 3(x/3)=x so in fact it is the inverse.
    So false. Go with B. When dealing with functions, the term "inverse" seldom means reciprocal.

  • math - ,

    Please help HM

  • Math - ,

    are u sure about this

  • Math (Ms. Sue Please Help) - ,

    Christian -- Bobpursley is a math/physics/teacher. HM is probably a high school student.

  • Math (Ms. Sue Please Help) - ,

    Yes, Christian. But don't trust me. That is the same message.

Answer This Question

First Name:
School Subject:

Related Questions

More Related Questions

Post a New Question