Thursday

April 17, 2014

April 17, 2014

Posted by **Christian** on Monday, September 12, 2011 at 1:47pm.

If f(x) = 3x, then f^-1(x) = 1/3x

A) This makes sense because the inverse would divide by 3 to "undo" the multiplication by 3 in f(x).

B) This does not make sense because although we would divide by 3 to "undo" the multiplication by 3 in f(x), the x would appear in the numerator not the denominator.

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