Posted by
**Christian** on
.

Determine whether the following statement makes sense or does not make sense, and explain your reasoning (modified from true/false format of text):

If f(x) = 3x, then f^-1(x) = 1/3x

A) This makes sense because the inverse would divide by 3 to "undo" the multiplication by 3 in f(x).

B) This does not make sense because although we would divide by 3 to "undo" the multiplication by 3 in f(x), the x would appear in the numerator not the denominator.