posted by Gertrude on .
I am having a mental block. I have the answer to the question. It is
(-‡,‡). I just need help figuring it out. The equation is:
If you meant (-&infin,+&infin), your answer is correct.
1 is already >0, and x^2 is ≥0 ∀x∈R, therefore x∈R will satisfy the given inequality.
To post ∞, you can type:
& i n f i n ;
without typing the intevening spaces.
The "Microsoft Word" symbols/alt-code are not interpreted correctly here.