Posted by JJ on Saturday, August 13, 2011 at 10:02pm.
Yes, you need a possessive -- not only when a noun "owns" another noun, but also when the noun comes before a gerund.
http://grammar.ccc.commnet.edu/grammar/gerunds.htm#possessive
Thank you Writeacher! Did I "goof" thinking that "speaking" is a participle/adj modifying English? TIA-JJ
The word "speaking" is a gerund, a verbal noun form. "English" is that gerund's direct object. (Since it's a verb form, it can have a direct object.)
Nothing about gerunds is easy!!
Ah Ha! Nothing about MT is easy--LOL! I have to laugh at myself; since I started MT I feel like my years of background in both grammar and copy editing have had the rug pulled from underneath, causing me to have mono conversations that feel like they may need RX at times--LOL! I'll be okay. Thank you so much and have a blessed evening; I am going to go do some "no-brainer" filing for a bit. JJ
Another bell just rang. Apostrophe "s" means "his" in the old English, so with substituting "his," my light bulb confirms your answer. The gentleman's--his speaking. Oy Vey! Where was my head. . . .Onward, now! Thank you, again!
Yes, good connection you made!
This index is a terrific place to look up grammar and usage terms that you need explanations for:
http://grammar.ccc.commnet.edu/grammar/index2.htm
This is, to me, the best grammar website out there!
And... you're very welcome.
Oh My! I was at that site a couple of times tonight and earlier this week. That's where I began my argument with the apostrophe and got twisted thinking that "speaking" was a participle, and as you can see, I got tangled. I have bookmarked with seeing your recommendation! Thank you very much! Have a wonderful weekend! JJ
Thanks, JJ -- you, too!
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