Posted by
**Anonymous** on
.

For large values of n, the Riemann sum 1/n(sin0 + (pi/2n) + sin(2pi/2n) +sin(3pi/2n)+...sin((n-1)pi/2n))

is an approximation for which of the following integrals?

Tuesday

March 28, 2017
Posted by
**Anonymous** on
.

For large values of n, the Riemann sum 1/n(sin0 + (pi/2n) + sin(2pi/2n) +sin(3pi/2n)+...sin((n-1)pi/2n))

is an approximation for which of the following integrals?

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