If the cost of a cell phone has decreased 400% during the past 10 years, does that correspond to a decrease of four times?
To me, without more data, it doesn't make sense. A decrease of 100% would mean it costs nothing.
If the rate of decrease was constant over the 10 years, it would mean a decrease of 40% each year. Assuming it cost $100 originally:
$100
$60
$36
$21.60
$12.96
$7.78
That is only after 5 years!
Sorry that I cannot be of more help.
No, a decrease of 400% does not correspond to a decrease of four times. When an amount decreases by 400%, it means that the new amount is only 25% (or one fourth) of the original amount.
To understand this, let's break it down step by step:
1. If the cost of a cell phone has decreased by 100%, it means the price has become zero, as it declined by the entire original amount. So, a decrease of 100% means no remaining value.
2. Now, if we reduce the cost of the cell phone by another 100%, we would end up with a negative value, which is not possible in the context of pricing. Therefore, we can't continue reducing by 100%.
3. Instead, we need to interpret a decrease of 400% as reducing the original value by four times. This means the remaining value is only 25% (or one fourth) of the original amount.
In conclusion, a decrease of 400% corresponds to a reduction to one fourth of the initial amount, not a decrease of four times.