Posted by Ky on Sunday, March 6, 2011 at 7:56pm.
Rolle's theorem states that a differentiable function that has equal values at two distinct points must have a point somewhere between them where the first derivative is zero.
Rolle's theorem does not apply to that function in that interval, since f(x) decreases from 1 at x = 0 to -1 at pi. There are no two values of x in the [0, pi] interval where the f(x) values are the same.
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