Posted by Joey on Thursday, February 24, 2011 at 9:28pm.
1a. "Two cards are drawn" means that the order is not important.
So the outcome for the cards is
C(40,2)
= 40*39/2!
= 780
Multiply by the 6 outcomes of the independent event of the die to give 4680.
b. I interpret "one even card is drawn" to mean "exactly one even card is drawn" and not "at least one even card is drawn".
Out of the 4 possible outcomes:
Odd/Odd, even/even, even/odd, and odd/even, the probability that exactly one even card is drawn is 2/4. Similarly, the probability for an even number on the die is 3/6.
So the joint probability can be obtained by the multiplication rule.
2a.
Given 4 red, 3 green and 5 yellow marbles (total = 12).
Three are drawn without replacement
a) To be drawn in order YRG:
To get a yellow, there are 5 out of 12
To get a red on the next, there are 4 out of 11
To get a green on the next, there are 3 out of 10.
The probability is therefore:
(5/12)*(4/11)*(3/10)
ii) left to you as an exercise.
I still don't understand 1b.. the answer is 10/39 but i don't know...
For 2ii) its
Yellow: 5/12
Green:3/11
Green:2/10
(5/12)*(3/11)*(2/10= 1/44
2ii is correct.
For 1B, there are two cases.
He draws 1 even followed by 1 odd:
1 even: 20 out of 40 cards
1 odd : 20 out of 39 cards.
Probability : (20/40)*(20/39)=400/1560=10/39
Similarly, 1 odd followed by 1 even:
1 even: 20 out of 40 cards
1 odd : 20 out of 39 cards.
Probability : (20/40)*(20/39)=400/1560=10/39
Total of two cases : (10+10)/39 = 20/39
For the die, there are 3 even out of 6, so the probability is 1/2.
Overall probability = (20/39)*(1/2) = 10/39.
Thank you! I understand now.
:)
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