Posted by **Anna** on Tuesday, December 14, 2010 at 3:15pm.

I had asked a question earlier and bob pursley nicely answered it but I do have a question concerning it still- perhaps someone could clarify it-

f(x) = logx is a logarthmic function. Bob Pursley said it could be because the base is implied but my question is the way it is written is exactly the way I wrotr it here-doesn't it need parentheses or something to be correct?

- AlgebrAlgebra-Mathmate or BobPursley or Reiny -
**bobpursley**, Tuesday, December 14, 2010 at 5:14pm
I read it as the logarithm of x.

If you read it that way also, it is a logarithmic equation.

Very few mathematicians get overly concerned with notation, however, I have known many high school teachers make a big deal of Log(x) and other notation. I still remember when one thousand was written 1--- ; nowadays, since placeholders were invented, 1000 is the norm. But it still represents the same value. 1K ; or 1E3 are still a thousand also.

Analyze your teacher's psyche on this.

- AlgebrAlgebra-Mathmate or BobPursley or Reiny -
**Anna**, Tuesday, December 14, 2010 at 5:50pm
Thank you-I understand what you're saying-I really appreciate the help

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