Posted by Chris on Wednesday, December 8, 2010 at 9:58pm.
The first two are wrong.
The last three are correct.
1.plural=has
2.singular=is
1. None is singular. None has . . .
2. is correct now.
Can you please explain how none is singular in sentence #1? I know that all, any, more, most, none, and some may be either singular or plural, depending on their meaning in a sentence.
Although I always taught that "none" is singular, apparently in current usage it can be either singular or plural. I still think it's singular in your sentence because it means no one. However, your text materials may consider it plural. Check these sites for more information.
http://topics.blogs.nytimes.com/2009/02/24/hobgoblins/
http://www.wsu.edu/~brians/errors/nonerrors.html
Thanks that makes since to be now. Let me try a few more that can be either just to make sure I understand.
1.All of the actors (knows, know) their lines.
2. Most of the plants (needs, need) water.
3.Now more of the waiters (seems, seem) busy.
1.plural=know
2.plural=need
3.plural=seem
I'm glad the status of "none" makes sense to you. This seems to be an example of language rules changing -- and at this time the only "right" answer is the one the editor wants.
Your last answers are correct!
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