Posted by Moi on Wednesday, December 8, 2010 at 8:42pm.
Hello, i was wondering if e^(2t) is equivalent to e^(t^2). I cant seem to find if this is true or not.
Thanks

Logarithm law question  MathMate, Wednesday, December 8, 2010 at 9:20pm
e^(2t) is equal to e^(t^2) if and only if t=2 or t=0, simply because 2t=t² for these two values of t.
Since in general, 2t≠t², e^(2t) is not equivalent to e^(t^2).
For example, t=4,
e^{2t}=e^{8}=2980.96
e^{t²}=e^{16}=8886110.52
The confusion arises probably because
e^{2t}=(e^{t})²
while
e^{t²}=(e^t)^t
Hope that clears it up.
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