Posted by **K** on Thursday, November 25, 2010 at 10:12pm.

Suppose that 0 < c < ¥ð/2. For what value of c is the area of the region enclosed by the curves y = cos x, y = cos(x - c), and x = 0 equal to the area of the region enclosed by the curves y = cos(x - c), x = ¥ð, and y = 0?

i have no idea how to solve this question.

- please check question -
**MathMate**, Friday, November 26, 2010 at 1:32pm
Please confirm if ¥ð stands for π.

Also, please check the limits of integration. The bottom limit seems to be missing for the first area, and confirm if the right limit for the second area is indeed π or should it be π/2.

- Calculus - please help! -
**K**, Monday, November 29, 2010 at 2:35am
yes, ¥ðstands for pi. The quesiton that i wrote above is all information that are given. There is no other limit on this integration. I will wrote the question once again. Please help. Thank You.

Suppose that 0 < c < pi/2. For what value of c is the area of the region enclosed by the curves y = cos x, y = cos(x - c), and x = 0 equal to the area of the region enclosed by the curves y = cos(x - c), x = pi, and y = 0?

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